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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 00:55

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why are people with borderline personality disorder so capable of ripping someone apart with their words?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Why do some people admire Latin American cultures but not want to be from or live in those countries?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.